Vayikra 20:13 in Hebrew, “וְאִ֗ישׁ אֲשֶׁ֨ר יִשְׁכַּ֤ב אֶת־זָכָר֙ מִשְׁכְּבֵ֣י אִשָּׁ֔ה תּֽוֹעֵבָ֥ה עָשׂ֖וּ שְׁנֵיהֶ֑ם מ֥וֹת יוּמָ֖תוּ דְּמֵיהֶ֥ם בָּֽם:”
And in English, “13 And a man who lies with a male as one would with a woman both of them have committed an abomination; they shall surely be put to death; their blood is upon themselves.”
The word translated as man is וְאִ֗ישׁ (w’ish) and a man; and the word translated as male is זָכָר֙ (zakar) a male. Why does Moses say this? Why not say an ish should not lie with an ish as with an ishah instead of an ish should not lie with a zakar as with an ishah? What does it mean?
submitted by /u/Charis_Humin
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Source: Reditt
