Zecher et Amalek vs Zeicher et Amalek, what difference does it make?

Brief context/story. Friday morning I went to Chabad for shacharit, before minyan started I overheard 2 rabbis talking about zecher and zeicher for the maftir of Parashat Zachor and one said that some Briskers would go to a Yemenite Beit Knesset to be sure they’re yotze to hear the mitzvah properly because it’s a mitzvah D’Oraita. They know that I know the Teimanj nusach for kria, so they wanted me to read maftir and I agreed. One rabbi said “for the first time in 25 years, this shul will be yotze the mitzvah”. Fast forward to the maftir reading on Shabbat, the Baal Koreh read maftir with Chabad nusach, then the bukhari rabbi read with bukhari nusach, then I read with teimani nusach. My question, is why is this the ONE word in the entire Torah where some Ashkis (I’m assuming this is an exclusively Ashki minhag but I could be wrong) feel the need to change their dialect for one word? Don’t want to put down anyone’s minhag, but it seems pointless and a little ridiculous to me? Would love to hear people’s thoughts, thanks everyone!