Just a conjecture, not wedded to it, so correct me if I’m wrong, but…
Since Justinian revised and consolidated Roman law for a Christian Roman empire in the 530s, might it not be the case that part of the reason for the Talmud coming into existence was a need to do something similar for the Jewish realm? Previously (i.e. after Caracalla had granted Roman citizenship to all inhabitants of Rome), Jews were as Roman as anybody else. But after Rome’s Christianization, and Justinian’s Christian legalism, would there not have been an implied need to instantiate a distinct Jewish legalism?
submitted by /u/Medical-Border-6918
[link] [comments]
Source: Reditt
