Disclaimer: I’m not Jewish. I’m not Christian either, and that will be relevant in a moment. My question might be a bit of a thorny one, so I encourage the mods to delete it if appropriate.
I encounter Christians who claim that the (apparent) condemnation of homosexuality in the Torah isn’t actually about homosexuality at all. They argue that the words used are more applicable to pederasty in particular, not homosexuality in general. I don’t speak ancient Hebrew, nor the Koine Greek of the Septuagint so I can’t begin to dispute their assertions.
But are their Rabbinic commentaries from ancient sources that discuss what constitutes homosexuality? Some Christians seem to pretend that Judaism never really existed and implicitly that its body of literature doesn’t exist either. Do we have any idea what the generations of people immediately after receiving the Torah felt on the subject? Do the sources other than the Torah offer insight?
Again, if the question is out of line or not appropriate for the sub please take whatever action is appropriate.
submitted by /u/anger_is_my_meat
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Source: Reditt
