Hello beautiful people 🙂
I’ve just gone down a rabbit hole on scripture, particularly the Ordeal of the Sotah (Num. 5:11-31), and the ensuing questions of translation, meaning, and application, and now I am wondering about when this actually might have been applied (chronologically speaking, not situationally). I don’t know basically anything at all about scripture and am only now trying to learn so this is probably a bit of an idiotic question, but I am trying to understand the timeline of when this was an applicable or actively used practice.
Are there any other sources citing an end to the practice or could it have ostensibly continued throughout antiquity and into the middle ages or later into the Early modern period? Alternatively, are there any elements of the ritual which inevitably date it/render it part of a specific historic period?