I read in a kabbalistic book that sons of Abraham with his concubine colonized India. The Rig Veda was written in Vedic Sanskrit. Abraham spoke Hebrew and the Egyptian concubine spoke Ancient Egyptian. I’m not very good at linguistics but I think that they were probably bilingual and spoke a mix of Hebrew and Egyptian and would have adopted some Sumerian loanwords at the road because of trade. The end-result would be something very different from Sanskrit. Hebrew and Egyptian are Afro-Asiatic languages and Sanskrit is an Indo-European language. How would be possible sons of a Hebrew man with an Egyptian woman suddenly become to composing hymns in an Indo-European language like Vedic Sanskrit?
I need a linguistic analysis to help me find the truth if this hypothesis is likely or unlikely because it sounds unlikely.