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Question from atheist re Christian corruptions of the Tanakh

Hi everyone

I’m an atheist, whose kind of become obsessed with following online religious debates and theology recently.

I’ve often seen people who (I assume) are Orthodox Jews assert in online debates things like: “the Old Testament is a Christian corruption” and “the Tanakh has nothing to do with the ‘Old Testament,'” but refuse to elaborate when I ask.

This seems strange to me, since (as far as I know) from at least the C16, the western Christian churches all used the Masoretic Text (often taken from the rabbis who provided the initial Hebrew philological training to C16 and 17 Christian scholars).

I’m thinking the “corruption” could refer to:

a) different order of some of the books between the Tanakh and OT (arguably a corruption but very trivial);

b) historic use by the New Testament and medieval Christian churches of the Septuagint, although this can hardly be called a “Christian” corruption, given:

i) it was created by Diaspora Jews before the emergence of Christianity; and

ii) at least some (and possibly most/all) differences between the Masoretic Text and the Septuagint reflect textual differences among Judaean Jews long predating Christianity (as shown by the Qumran versions of the Torah etc)

c) mistranslations in the King James Version (e.g. ratsach as “kill” rather than “murder”), (although to be fair to Christians, the KJV (as opposed to the Hebrew text) was never viewed as inspired itself, and is just an early translation superseded by better translations a very long time ago)

d) Modern critical editions by Christians, whose editorial choices may favor manuscript traditions different from the Masoretic Text family.

Would it be one of these or am I missing something?

submitted by /u/Prudent-Town-6724
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Source: Reditt