At the time of the 2nd exile wasnt there a Roman presence all across North Africa & i’m assuming communities of jews in these areas.
So why does Sephardic history seem to start with the Arab spread/conquest across the Mahgreb
And why are the jews from the North African Mahgreb especially called Mizrahi, rather than Sephardic
submitted by /u/thefoxyone
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Source: Reditt