Genesis 36:31 reads: “These are the kings who reigned in the land of Edom before any king reigned over the Israelites.”
I interpret this to mean that the writer or editor of the passage knows that kings come to reign in Israel. Is this a correct assumption? Or is the writer simply saying, we didn’t have a king then, and we still don’t have a king.
My larger question I guess is that if this book was edited in the time of kings, are there other points, specifically points of prophecy that could have been adjusted to align with the reality at the time?
Full disclosure, I am not Jewish, I consider myself Noahide, but am very interested in both the theology and history of the books.