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Extremely Convoluted Theoretical Dietry Law Question


For a short while now I have taken to pondering interesting theoretics concerning Hebraic dietry laws. Most of the thoughts I have had have been dealt with, though understandably not always unanimously or satisfactorily. Today I had another thought and am unable to locate any rulings regarding the matter, though bear in mind I do not read Classical Hebrew nor Modern Hebrew; I have been using English-language resources so have likely missed relevant information.

My question is this: under kashrut (כַּשְׁרוּת) laws, is it kosher (כָּשֵׁר) for a Jew to consume meat harvested from a live animal?

For the purposes of this thought experiment:

  • We are dealing with a kosher type of animal.
  • We are dealing with a kosher part of said animal.
  • The animal goes on to live a healthy life after meat has been obtained from it.
  • The animal is not subject to cruel treatment (for example, hacking off a leg with a machete and leaving it to suffer) in order to get the meat, but rather it must lose a part for a perfectly moral reason (or at least an amoral one). If said reason is medical (which it may not necessarily be) then it doesn’t have implications regarding human consumption (for example, gangrene or necrosis) nor does it violate terefah (טְרֵפָה) laws.
  • The human is question is not susceptible to starvation, nor dire illness, nor similar afflictions that would permit consumption of otherwise non-kosher foods.
  • The human has viable access to a plethora of kosher foodstuffs.
  • The meat has been processed appropriately (for example, it has been tilled for the removal of blood).
  • The meat is processed and cooked by a Jew (perhaps yourself or a member of your household).
  • The meat must be eaten in unadulterated form. That is to say that you cannot use the principle of nullification-in-sixty (בשישים בטל) in this experiment.

I understand that the Hebrew scriptures do not deal with such a matter, but has anyone over the ages made an applicable ruling?

Follow-up question 1: Does the very act of harvesting, say, a limb or other part of an animal immediately make it non-kosher due to terefah laws?

Follow-up question 2 applicable only if the above is thought of as kosher: Let us say that the animal survives the process of harvesting the meat, yet dies before consumption. Perhaps this death is for related reasons, or perhaps it is unrelated. Would this have any implications regarding consuming the previously harvested part?

I thank you for being with my ridiculous nonsense in advance!

(Minor edits have been made to this post in order to clarify particular aspects, fix typos, and improve formatting.)

submitted by /u/Combatives1
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