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Did a rape victim have to marry their rapist in the Torah?

Deuteronomy 22:28–29

28 “If a man meets a virgin who is not betrothed, and seizes her and lies with her, and they are found, 29 then the man who lay with her shall give to the father of the young woman fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife, because he has violated her. He may not divorce her all his days.

I’ve read some commentaries that go for the word “seize” and say it was more like seduce as the same word is used when that one man’s wife tries to seize Joseph to lie with him thus this is speaking of consensual sex. They also add that there’s no mention of screaming here like that seen in the other law. Seeking truth: are these guys on the right track?

submitted by /u/wallet_man
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Source: Reditt

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