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Biblical Grammar Question

There are a few things about biblical grammar that have confused me for awhile, and I’d appreciate if anyone can explain them to me:

What does the suffix מו- mean? (Examples include וְאַתָּ֖ה עַל־בָּמוֹתֵ֥ימוֹ תִדְרֹֽךְ in Devarim 33:29, תְּשַׁלַּח֙ חֲרֹ֣נְךָ֔ יֹאכְלֵ֖מוֹ כַּקַּֽשׁ in Shmot 15:7, תּוֹרִישֵׁ֖מוֹ יָדִֽי in Shmot 15:9) It seems to mean that the object of the verb is 3rd person male, but I’m not 100 percent sure.

What is going on when words with 2 segols sometimes change one of them to a kamatz? (such as רֶ֖גֶל תַּ֥חַת רָֽגֶל in Shmot 21:24, קֶ֥שֶׁר קָֽשֶׁר in 2 Kings 11:14, or how חרב is sometimes spelled charev instead of cherev).

What’s the difference between הם/הן and המה/הנה?

Thanks!

submitted by /u/Mg515
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Source: Reditt

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