There is controversy about whether the Zohar was written by Rashbi or Moshe de Leon. Many believe it was written by Rashbi and merely published/dessiminated by de Leon. I’m curious what the reasoning, argument and evidence are that it was indeed written by Rashbi, even though there’s a lot of evidence that it was authored in 13th century Spain. From what I understand, the Aramaic does not seems like it was written by a native speaker and there are Spanish idioms translated verbatim into Aramaic throughout the text. Theres also the argument that the text is not referenced anywhere in any source prior to the 13th century. But that’s the academic perspective, so I would like to hear what the other point of view is. It is not my intent to offend anyone with this question and am asking because I respect both points of view and want a better understanding.